My Question https://cs.stackexchange.com/questions/24298/why-is-interest-in-the-fields-of-ontology-and-semantics-declining was migrated here from Theoretical CS, where it was considered off-topic. Here, it has been put on hold because "answers to this question will tend to be almost entirely based on opinions".
I gather that this may be a sensitive topic, and some of the comments were useful, but I still don't understand why it can't be answered with an empirical statement. I was expecting that it could be answered with a reference.
Could someone please help me improve this so that I can determine why a CS prof would think that ontology and semantics are bogus? I can see why such a statement might be inflammatory, but I can't see why it can not be answered with a reference or facts. My question fundamentally boils down to wanting to know if there is an explanation for the trends in the figure: